SEPTEMBER CASE STUDY:A known 3 year old hemophiliac patient has being admitted to a small hospital and need to be transferred to your hospital for a possible treatment. A sample is collected and rushed to the special coagulation laboratory. The APTT is run and the result is > 100 seconds. One point is run to quickly give the pediatric hematologist a result and the 1:10 dilution is 32%. This does not correspond to an APTT of > 100 seconds. The complete results are:
1:20 = 54%
1:40= 75%
1:80=98%
What is a possible explanation for this result? Should this patient receive product, based on the APTT result? What is the factor assay telling us? What test can be done to confirm this?
